NEW QUESTION 1

Examples of types of physical access controls include all EXCEPT which of the following?

• A. badges
• B. locks
• C. guards
• D. passwords

Answer: D

Explanation:
Passwords are considered a Preventive/Technical (logical) control. The following answers are incorrect:
badges Badges are a physical control used to identify an individual. A badge can include a smart device which can be used for authentication and thus a Technical control, but the actual badge itself is primarily a physical control.
locks Locks are a Preventative Physical control and has no Technical association. guards Guards are a Preventative Physical control and has no Technical association.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 35).

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements is NOT true of IPSec Transport mode?

• A. It is required for gateways providing access to internal systems
• B. Set-up when end-point is host or communications terminates at end-points
• C. If used in gateway-to-host communication, gateway must act as host
• D. When ESP is used for the security protocol, the hash is only applied to the upper layer protocols contained in the packet

Answer: A

Explanation:
Source: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 2, 2001, CRC Press, NY, Pages 166-167.

NEW QUESTION 3

What is the main concern with single sign-on?

• A. Maximum unauthorized access would be possible if a password is disclosed.
• B. The security administrator's workload would increase.
• C. The users' password would be too hard to remember.
• D. User access rights would be increased.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A major concern with Single Sign-On (SSO) is that if a user's ID and password are compromised, the intruder would have access to all the systems that the user was authorized for.
The following answers are incorrect:
The security administrator's workload would increase. Is incorrect because the security administrator's workload would decrease and not increase. The admin would not be responsible for maintaining multiple user accounts just the one.
The users' password would be too hard to remember. Is incorrect because the users would have less passwords to remember.
User access rights would be increased. Is incorrect because the user access rights would not be any different than if they had to log into systems manually.

NEW QUESTION 4

The Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) employs which of the following?

• A. a user ID and static password for network access
• B. a user ID and dynamic password for network access
• C. a user ID and symmetric password for network access
• D. a user ID and asymmetric password for network access

Answer: A

Explanation:
For networked applications, the Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) employs a user ID and a static password for network access.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 44.

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following would be MOST important to guarantee that the computer evidence will be admissible in court?

• A. It must prove a fact that is immaterial to the case.
• B. Its reliability must be proven.
• C. The process for producing it must be documented and repeatable.
• D. The chain of custody of the evidence must show who collected, secured, controlled, handled, transported the evidence, and that it was not tampered with.

Answer: D

Explanation:
It has to be material, relevant and reliable, and the chain of custody must be maintained, it is unlikely that it will be admissible in court if it has been tampered with.
The following answers are incorrect:
It must prove a fact that is immaterial to the case. Is incorrect because evidence must be relevant. If it is immaterial then it is not relevant.
Its reliability must be proven. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. While evidence must be relevant if the chain of custody cannot be verified, then the evidence could lose it's credibility because there is no proof that the evidence was not tampered with. So, the correct answer above is the BEST answer.
The process for producing it must be documented and repeatable. Is incorrect because just because the process is documented and repeatable does not mean that it will be the same.
This amounts to Corroborative Evidence that may help to support a case.

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following is NOT a common category/classification of threat to an IT system?

• A. Human
• B. Natural
• C. Technological
• D. Hackers

Answer: D

Explanation:
Hackers are classified as a human threat and not a classification by itself.
All the other answers are incorrect. Threats result from a variety of factors, although they are classified in three types: Natural (e.g., hurricane, tornado, flood and fire), human (e.g. operator error, sabotage, malicious code) or technological (e.g. equipment failure, software error, telecommunications network outage, electric power failure).
Reference:
SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistpubs/800-34-rev1/sp800-34-rev1_errata-Nov11- 2010.pdf, June 2002 (page 6).

NEW QUESTION 7

Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP model controls the communication flow between hosts?

• A. Internet layer
• B. Host-to-host transport layer
• C. Application layer
• D. Network access layer

Answer: B

Explanation:
Whereas the host-to-host layer (equivalent to the OSI's transport layer) provides end-to-end data delivery service, flow control, to the application layer.
The four layers in the DoD model, from top to bottom, are:
The Application Layer contains protocols that implement user-level functions, such as mail delivery, file transfer and remote login.
The Host-to-Host Layer handles connection rendez vous, flow control, retransmission of lost data, and other generic data flow management between hosts. The mutually exclusive TCP and UDP protocols are this layer's most important members.
The Internet Layer is responsible for delivering data across a series of different physical networks that interconnect a source and destination machine. Routing protocols are most closely associated with this layer, as is the IP Protocol, the Internet's fundamental protocol.
The Network Access Layer is responsible for delivering data over the particular hardware media in use. Different protocols are selected from this layer, depending on the type of physical network
The OSI model organizes communication services into seven groups called layers. The layers are as follows:
Layer 7, The Application Layer: The application layer serves as a window for users and application processes to access network services. It handles issues such as network transparency, resource allocation, etc. This layer is not an application in itself, although some applications may perform application layer functions.
Layer 6, The Presentation Layer: The presentation layer serves as the data translator for a network. It is usually a part of an operating system and converts incoming and outgoing data from one presentation format to another. This layer is also known as syntax layer. Layer 5, The Session Layer: The session layer establishes a communication session between processes running on different communication entities in a network and can
support a message-mode data transfer. It deals with session and connection coordination. Layer 4, The Transport Layer: The transport layer ensures that messages are delivered in the order in which they are sent and that there is no loss or duplication. It ensures complete data transfer. This layer provides an additional connection below the Session layer and assists with managing some data flow control between hosts. Data is divided into packets on the sending node, and the receiving node's Transport layer reassembles the message from packets. This layer is also responsible for error checking to guarantee error-free data delivery, and requests a retransmission if necessary. It is also responsible for sending acknowledgments of successful transmissions back to the sending host. A number of protocols run at the Transport layer, including TCP, UDP, Sequenced Packet Exchange (SPX), and NWLink.
Layer 3, The Network Layer: The network layer controls the operation of the subnet. It determines the physical path that data takes on the basis of network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. The network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets.
Layer 2, The Data-Link Layer: The data-link layer is responsible for error free transfer of data frames. This layer provides synchronization for the physical layer. ARP and RARP would be found at this layer.
Layer 1, The Physical Layer: The physical layer is responsible for packaging and transmitting data on the physical media. This layer conveys the bit stream through a network at the electrical and mechanical level.
See a great flash animation on the subject at: http://www.maris.com/content/applets/flash/comp/fa0301.swf
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 85).
Also: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 7: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 344).

NEW QUESTION 8

What kind of Encryption technology does SSL utilize?

• A. Secret or Symmetric key
• B. Hybrid (both Symmetric and Asymmetric)
• C. Public Key
• D. Private key

Answer: B

Explanation:
SSL use public-key cryptography to secure session key, while the session key (secret key) is used to secure the whole session taking place between both parties communicating with each other.
The SSL protocol was originally developed by Netscape. Version 1.0 was never publicly
released; version 2.0 was released in February 1995 but "contained a number of security flaws which ultimately led to the design of SSL version 3.0." SSL version 3.0, released in 1996, was a complete redesign of the protocol produced by Paul Kocher working with Netscape engineers Phil Karlton and Alan Freier.
All of the other answers are incorrect

NEW QUESTION 9

What is called the formal acceptance of the adequacy of a system's overall security by the management?

• A. Certification
• B. Acceptance
• C. Accreditation
• D. Evaluation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Accreditation is the authorization by management to implement software or
systems in a production environment. This authorization may be either provisional or full. The following are incorrect answers:
Certification is incorrect. Certification is the process of evaluating the security stance of the software or system against a selected set of standards or policies. Certification is the technical evaluation of a product. This may precede accreditation but is not a required precursor.
Acceptance is incorrect. This term is sometimes used as the recognition that a piece of software or system has met a set of functional or service level criteria (the new payroll system has passed its acceptance test). Certification is the better tem in this context.
Evaluation is incorrect. Evaluation is certainly a part of the certification process but it is not the best answer to the question.
Reference(s) used for this question:
The Official Study Guide to the CBK from ISC2, pages 559-560
AIO3, pp. 314 - 317
AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 369 - 372) AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 370 - 372)

NEW QUESTION 10

Which access model is most appropriate for companies with a high employee turnover?

• A. Role-based access control
• B. Mandatory access control
• C. Lattice-based access control
• D. Discretionary access control

Answer: A

Explanation:
The underlying problem for a company with a lot of turnover is assuring that new employees are assigned the correct access permissions and that those permissions are removed when they leave the company.
Selecting the best answer requires one to think about the access control options in the context of a company with a lot of flux in the employee population. RBAC simplifies the task of assigning permissions because the permissions are assigned to roles which do not change based on who belongs to them. As employees join the company, it is simply a matter of assigning them to the appropriate roles and their permissions derive from their assigned role. They will implicitely inherit the permissions of the role or roles they have been assigned to. When they leave the company or change jobs, their role assignment is revoked/changed appropriately.
Mandatory access control is incorrect. While controlling access based on the clearence level of employees and the sensitivity of obects is a better choice than some of the other incorrect answers, it is not the best choice when RBAC is an option and you are looking for the best solution for a high number of employees constantly leaving or joining the company.
Lattice-based access control is incorrect. The lattice is really a mathematical concept that is used in formally modeling information flow (Bell-Lapadula, Biba, etc). In the context of the question, an abstract model of information flow is not an appropriate choice. CBK, pp. 324- 325.
Discretionary access control is incorrect. When an employee joins or leaves the company, the object owner must grant or revoke access for that employee on all the objects they own. Problems would also arise when the owner of an object leaves the company. The complexity of assuring that the permissions are added and removed correctly makes this the least desirable solution in this situation.
References
Alll in One, third edition page 165
RBAC is discussed on pp. 189 through 191 of the ISC(2) guide.

NEW QUESTION 11

In which of the following model are Subjects and Objects identified and the permissions applied to each subject/object combination are specified. Such a model can be used to quickly summarize what permissions a subject has for various system objects.

• A. Access Control Matrix model
• B. Take-Grant model
• C. Bell-LaPadula model
• D. Biba model

Answer: A

Explanation:
An access control matrix is a table of subjects and objects indicating what actions individual subjects can take upon individual objects. Matrices are data structures that programmers implement as table lookups that will be used and enforced by the operating system.
This type of access control is usually an attribute of DAC models. The access rights can be assigned directly to the subjects (capabilities) or to the objects (ACLs).
Capability Table
A capability table specifies the access rights a certain subject possesses pertaining to specific objects. A capability table is different from an ACL because the subject is bound to the capability table, whereas the object is bound to the ACL.
Access control lists (ACLs)
ACLs are used in several operating systems, applications, and router configurations. They are lists of subjects that are authorized to access a specific object, and they define what level of authorization is granted. Authorization can be specific to an individual, group, or role. ACLs map values from the access control matrix to the object.
Whereas a capability corresponds to a row in the access control matrix, the ACL corresponds to a column of the matrix.
NOTE: Ensure you are familiar with the terms Capability and ACLs for the purpose of the exam.
Resource(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 5264-5267). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
or
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Page 229 and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 1923-1925). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following is NOT a task normally performed by a Computer Incident Response Team (CIRT)?

• A. Develop an information security policy.
• B. Coordinate the distribution of information pertaining to the incident to the appropriate parties.
• C. Mitigate risk to the enterprise.
• D. Assemble teams to investigate the potential vulnerabilities.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Writing a corporate security policy is normally a task of upper management in an organization. Other tasks would usually be performed by a Computer Incident Response Team.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 64).

NEW QUESTION 13

What does it mean to say that sensitivity labels are "incomparable"?

• A. The number of classification in the two labels is different.
• B. Neither label contains all the classifications of the other.
• C. the number of categories in the two labels are different.
• D. Neither label contains all the categories of the other.

Answer: D

Explanation:
If a category does not exist then you cannot compare it. Incomparable is when you have two disjointed sensitivity labels, that is a category in one of the labels is not in the other label. "Because neither label contains all the categories of the other, the labels can't be compared. They're said to be incomparable"
COMPARABILITY:
The label:
TOP SECRET [VENUS ALPHA]
is "higher" than either of the labels:
SECRET [VENUS ALPHA] TOP SECRET [VENUS]
But you can't really say that the label:
TOP SECRET [VENUS]
is higher than the label:
SECRET [ALPHA]
Because neither label contains all the categories of the other, the labels can't be compared. They're said to be incomparable. In a mandatory access control system, you won't be allowed access to a file whose label is incomparable to your clearance.
The Multilevel Security policy uses an ordering relationship between labels known as the dominance relationship. Intuitively, we think of a label that dominates another as being "higher" than the other. Similarly, we think of a label that is dominated by another as being "lower" than the other. The dominance relationship is used to determine permitted operations and information flows.
DOMINANCE
The dominance relationship is determined by the ordering of the Sensitivity/Clearance component of the label and the intersection of the set of Compartments.
Sample Sensitivity/Clearance ordering are:
Top Secret > Secret > Confidential > Unclassified s3 > s2 > s1 > s0
Formally, for label one to dominate label 2 both of the following must be true: The sensitivity/clearance of label one must be greater than or equal to the
sensitivity/clearance of label two.
The intersection of the compartments of label one and label two must equal the compartments of label two.
Additionally:
Two labels are said to be equal if their sensitivity/clearance and set of compartments are exactly equal. Note that dominance includes equality.
One label is said to strictly dominate the other if it dominates the other but is not equal to the other.
Two labels are said to be incomparable if each label has at least one compartment that is not included in the other's set of compartments.
The dominance relationship will produce a partial ordering over all possible MLS labels, resulting in what is known as the MLS Security Lattice.
The following answers are incorrect:
The number of classification in the two labels is different. Is incorrect because the categories are what is being compared, not the classifications.
Neither label contains all the classifications of the other. Is incorrect because the categories are what is being compared, not the classifications.
the number of categories in the two labels is different. Is incorrect because it is possibe a category exists more than once in one sensitivity label and does exist in the other so they would be comparable.
Reference(s) used for this question:
OReilly - Computer Systems and Access Control (Chapter 3) http://www.oreilly.com/catalog/csb/chapter/ch03.html
and http://rubix.com/cms/mls_dom

NEW QUESTION 14

What mechanism does a system use to compare the security labels of a subject and an object?

• A. Validation Module.
• B. Reference Monitor.
• C. Clearance Check.
• D. Security Module.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Because the Reference Monitor is responsible for access control to the objects by the subjects it compares the security labels of a subject and an object.
According to the OIG: The reference monitor is an access control concept referring to an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by subjects based on information in an access control database. The reference monitor must mediate all access, be protected from modification, be verifiable as correct, and must always be invoked. The reference monitor, in accordance with the security policy, controls the checks that are made in the access control database.
The following are incorrect:
Validation Module. A Validation Module is typically found in application source code and is used to validate data being inputted.
Clearance Check. Is a distractor, there is no such thing other than what someone would do when checking if someone is authorized to access a secure facility.
Security Module. Is typically a general purpose module that prerforms a variety of security related functions.
References:
OIG CBK, Security Architecture and Design (page 324)
AIO, 4th Edition, Security Architecture and Design, pp 328-328. Wikipedia - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reference_monitor

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following focuses on sustaining an organization's business functions during and after a disruption?

• A. Business continuity plan
• B. Business recovery plan
• C. Continuity of operations plan
• D. Disaster recovery plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
A business continuity plan (BCP) focuses on sustaining an organization's business functions during and after a disruption. Information systems are considered in the BCP only in terms of their support to the larger business processes. The business recovery plan (BRP) addresses the restoration of business processes after an emergency. The BRP is similar to the BCP, but it typically lacks procedures to ensure continuity of critical processes throughout an emergency or disruption. The continuity of operations plan (COOP) focuses on restoring an organization's essential functions at an alternate site and performing those functions for up to 30 days before returning to normal operations. The disaster recovery plan (DRP) applies to major, usually catastrophic events that deny access to the normal facility for an extended period. A DRP is narrower in scope than an IT contingency plan in that it does not address minor disruptions that do not require relocation.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems, December 2001 (page 8).

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following IEEE standards defines the token ring media access method?

• A. 802.3
• B. 802.11
• C. 802.5
• D. 802.2

Answer: D

Explanation:
The IEEE 802.5 standard defines the token ring media access method. 802.3 refers to Ethernet's CSMA/CD, 802.11 refers to wireless communications and 802.2 refers to the logical link control.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 109).

NEW QUESTION 17
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