NEW QUESTION 1

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

• A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
• B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
• C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
• D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

• A. Forecasting,
• B. Brainstorming.
• C. Historical databases.
• D. Cost of qualit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

• A. Applying calendars
• B. Resource leveling
• C. Resource planning
• D. Resource conflict management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

• A. majority rule technique.
• B. nominal group technique.
• C. Delphi technique,
• D. idea/mind mapping techniqu

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5

The stakeholder register is an output of:

• A. Identify Stakeholders.
• B. Plan Stakeholder Management.
• C. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
• D. Manage Stakeholder Engagemen

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

• A. Project
• B. Plan
• C. Program
• D. Portfolio

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

• A. Teaming
• B. Collective bargaining
• C. Sharing
• D. Working

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

• A. Project Scope Management
• B. Project Time Management
• C. Project Communications Management
• D. Project Quality Management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

• A. Slack
• B. Float
• C. Lag
• D. Lead

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

• A. Plan Procurement Management
• B. Control Procurements
• C. Conduct Procurements
• D. Close Procurements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific
sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

• A. External
• B. Internal
• C. Mandatory
• D. Discretionary

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

• A. Reserve analysis
• B. Regression analysis
• C. Document analysis
• D. Product analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

• A. Recognized by every project manager
• B. Constantly evolving
• C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
• D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

• A. Procurement documents
• B. Communications plan
• C. Project charter
• D. Stakeholder register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

• A. Work performance reports
• B. Assumptions logs
• C. Network diagrams
• D. Academic studies

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

• A. Templates, forms, and standards
• B. Change requests
• C. Product analysis
• D. Project assumptions

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

• A. Functional managers
• B. Business partners
• C. Customers or sponsors
• D. Subject matter experts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

• A. structure.
• B. process asset.
• C. matrix.
• D. breakdown structur

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 19

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

• A. plan
• B. process
• C. program
• D. portfolio

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 20

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

• A. Work performance data
• B. Project documents
• C. Scope baseline
• D. Requirements documentation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

• A. Configuration management plan
• B. Scope baseline
• C. Requirements management plan
• D. Schedule baseline

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

An input to the Control Quality process is:

• A. Activity attributes
• B. Quality control measurements
• C. Enterprise environmental factors
• D. Deliverables

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

• A. Sensitivity analysis
• B. Three-point estimate
• C. Modeling and simulation
• D. Expected monetary value analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 24

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

• A. Adaptive
• B. Predictive
• C. Incremental
• D. Iterative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

• A. Efficient
• B. Effective
• C. Push
• D. Pull

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 26
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